I left
Jordan Valley Semiconductors at the end of August. This year I was eligible for three weeks of regular vacation (15 days) plus two floating holidays. The distinction between the two is that floating holidays are use-it-or-lose-it while regular vacation days can accumulate and unused portions may be paid-out in cash. Isn't it then reasonable to expect that the floating holidays be charged first before tapping into regular vacation days?
However, as I was advised, since I hadn't
specifically requested floating holidays when I used two and a half days time off that, by default, they were charged to my regular vacation days. In effect, I lost the two floating holidays because I,
technically, didn't use them while employed
and I lost two and a half days of my regular vacation days resulting in 12.5 days instead of 14.5 days of unused vacation pay-out. Does this seem fair to you?
Regardless, I'm not upset over losing the few hundred dollars from the loss of two vacation days as much as I'm stunned at the decision of my former manager, and by extension the company, to get technical on this issue with me. For what? Was it to save a multi-million dollar company a few hundred dollars by cheating an employee of earned vacation time? All that has resulted is to manufacture ill will where there was none before. How cheap and silly is this?